Spine 2022 Part 2
A 55-year-old patient presents with 2 days of fevers, chills, and low back pain. MRI with contrast shows an L3-4 epidural abscess. The patient is hemodynamically stable and neurovascularly intact on exam. What’s the next best step?
A 55-year-old patient presents with 2 days of fevers, chills, and low back pain. MRI with contrast shows an L3-4 epidural abscess. The patient is hemodynamically stable and neurovascularly intact on exam. What’s the next best step?
A 33-year-old patient presents with 3 weeks of right lower extremity pain. MRI is shown in Figures A and B. Which muscle group is mostly likely to be affected?